Recently in a correspondence with a very
sincere lady who is struggling between the non-Trinitarian versus Trinitarian views
of Scripture, she asked me to comment on Jn. 1:1-3 and Jn. 17:5. These two
passages are problematic for non-Trinitarian Pentecostals, and in her question
she pointed out that in older English translations, the pronoun “he” is
translated as “it” in Jn. 1:1-3. Such a translation, at least from the
non-Trinitarian point-of-view, might suggest that the logos was not
personal. Further, she suggested that in later English versions (KJV and
after), the use of the word “he” instead of “it” was imposed on the text,
implying that this was an inappropriate rendering. In the Jn. 17:5 passage,
non-Trinitarian Pentecostals tend to take the words “glorify thou me with thine
own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was” (KJV) to
mean something along the lines of “glorify thou me as thine own self…”,
thus, once again, removing from the passage any personal distinction between
the Father and the Son. Should you be interested in reading over my shoulder,
so to speak, here is what I said to her.
...let me briefly address the passages you
cited, beginning with the prologue to John's Gospel. You are correct: some of
the early English translations of John's Gospel translated the Greek personal pronoun
autou and the Greek demonstrative pronoun houtos as
"it" in Jn. 1:2-3 (this was true in the Tyndale Version, the
Great Bible and the Bishop's Bible), though John Wycliffe, who was earlier than
all three, translated the pronoun as "him", not "it".
I doubt that the rendering "it" should be taken to
mean that the logos was impersonal, however. Whether it is to be translated
as "him"/"he" or "it" is merely a
translator's choice. The personal pronouns can be translated either way,
and both are grammatically correct. The deeper issue is one of grammatical agreement
and contextual meaning. When one uses a word like logos, grammatical
agreement might lead one to use the word "it" as a pronoun, since
typically we don't think of a "word" as personal. However--and this
is quite important--the larger context of the passage indicates that the logos
WAS personal. The logos was the one through whom God created the
world (Greek dia with the genitive case, which means "through
the agency of"). The logos was the light that shined in the
darkness but was not understood. The logos was the light that illumines
every human person born in the world. This logos, in his incarnation,
was "in" the world that he himself had made, but the world did not
recognize him. The logos "became" flesh and tented
among us, and here, the verb ginomai (= became) is especially
important, for it cannot be swept aside as some sort of "dwelling"
Christology (which is typical in non-Trinitarian thought) but must
be taken as a true incarnation. By the time all three of these early versions
cited above (Tyndale, Bishops, Great Bible) reach Jn. 1:10, without exception
they all begin to use the pronouns "he" and "him", based
on that same Greek pronoun autou. Hence, I don't think one should
make too much of the translation "it" as though it favors a
non-Trinitarian doctrine. It doesn't. Further, the charge that the idea of
pre-existence was "imposed" on the text by later versions, such as
the KJV and following, cannot be sustained. The actual Greek text, which
twice says the logos was "with" God (Greek
proposition pros with the accusative case), directly describes pre-existence
and cannot mean anything else.
The language of Jn. 17:5 is described as
"the glory that was before the world began". This, if you'll pardon
me saying so, is an unfortunate way of phrasing it (and the way non-Trinitarian
folks would like to phrase it as they attempt to escape what the passage
plainly says). What the text plainly says in Greek is this: "Father...now
glorify me with yourself with the glory which I had with you
before the world [came] to be." Twice the text uses the preposition para,
once in a genitive construction as para seautou (= alongside
yourself) and the other in a dative construction as para soi (= by
the side of you). This passage is crystal clear in describing Jesus'
pre-existence, and grammatically it cannot be taken any other way!
The prepositional constructions "alongside yourself" and "by the
side of you" are death knells to the modalistic teaching. Non-Trinitarians
want to say something like "Father...glorify me as yourself
(instead of alongside yourself)", but the preposition para
simply cannot be taken in this way. Such an interpretation is not
possible in the Greek NT.